When we think of John 11:35 we often thing of the shortest verse in the Bible. It seems rarely that we are forced to take a step back and contemplate the true meaning of the verse. Why did Jesus weep? Was He weeping over the loss of His friend Lazarus? This is doubtful since He is about to restore Lazarus to life. Was He weeping because Mary and Martha were weeping? Once again this is doubtful because He is about to turn their sorrow into rejoicing. It must also be noted that the word used in this passage for Jesus’ weeping is different from the one used to describe the weeping of mary and the Jews. The word used to describe their weeping indicates loud wailing and cries of lament, whereas the word uses for Jesus’ weeping indicates “to shed tears” and carries with it the idea of quiet grief. Even so Jesus clearly wept, to the point that the jews even said “see how He loved him” but why?
It seems that the answer is not as easily found as one may expect. While it is true that Jesus did love Lazarus this does not appear to be the reason He would be weeping, as I wrote earlier clearly He knew He was about to raise Lazarus from the dead. The most logical conclusion for myself is two-fold. First Jesus is weeping to show His humanity. We must understand that Jesus is fully God and fully man and by His weeping we are allowed to see His humanity. That we worship a God who is like us in all ways and does have emotion, and compassion, and does weep. Secondly I believe Jesus wept because he was grieving over the effects of sin and death. He was hurt that this had to happen, sin beings death. I am forced to examine my life and ask when was the last time that sin brought me to tears. Weeping was a natural response to the situation, it shows He has compassion for the sinfulness of humanity which is the same reason He wept in Luke 19:41. So in summation Jesus wept because He is human, and because he had compassion. Will you weep for your own sin? Will you be found weeping for the sin of others?
